Name: 
 

Final Exam: Practice



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

One of these is NOT a unit of distance. Which one?
a.
Mile
b.
Inch
c.
Newton
d.
Meter
 

 2. 

The unit of length that most nearly matches the width of your finger is the:
a.
nanometer.
b.
millimeter.
c.
centimeter.
d.
meter.
 

 3. 

Which of the following are in the correct order from smallest to largest?
a.
Millimeter, meter, centimeter, kilometer
b.
Millimeter, centimeter, meter, kilometer
c.
Centimeter, millimeter, meter, kilometer
d.
Meter, millimeter, centimeter, kilometer
 

 4. 

How many centimeters are there in a stick 3 meters long?
a.
0.3 cm
b.
30 cm
c.
300 cm
d.
3,000 cm
 

 5. 

How many seconds are there in three days?
a.
72 seconds
b.
4,320 seconds
c.
259,200 seconds
d.
86,400 seconds
 

 6. 

A control variable is:
a.
a variable that stays the same throughout an experiment.
b.
a variable that is changed in an experiment.
c.
the largest, most powerful variable in an experiment.
d.
rarely used in scientific experiments.
 

 7. 

Most often, an experiment involving the scientific method begins with a:
a.
hypothesis.
b.
conclusion.
c.
procedure.
d.
question.
 

 8. 

What is the speed of a jet plane that travels 3,000 meters in 10 seconds?
a.
30 m/sec
b.
300 m/sec
c.
3,000 m/sec
d.
30,000 m/sec
 

 9. 

If an automobile travels at 30 m/sec for 2 minutes, the car has traveled:
a.
60 meters.
b.
1,800 meters.
c.
3,600 meters.
d.
216,000 meters.
 

 10. 

On this graph, the dependent variable is:
study_guide_files_f_files/i0110000.jpg
a.
distance.
b.
speed.
c.
acceleration.
d.
the slope of the speed vs. distance curve.
 

 11. 

Use the graph to predict the speed of the car when the car is at 60 cm.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0120000.jpg
a.
220 cm/sec
b.
230 cm/sec
c.
240 cm/sec
d.
250 cm/sec
 

 12. 

Calculate the speed of the object from the position vs. time graph shown below.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0130000.jpg
a.
0.5 m/sec
b.
0.75 m/sec
c.
2 m/sec
d.
3 m/sec
 

 13. 

At which of the following points on the graph is the speed the greatest?
study_guide_files_f_files/i0140000.jpg
a.
Point 1
b.
Point 2
c.
Point 3
d.
Point 4
 

 14. 

A bicycle rider would NOT be accelerating if her:
a.
direction and speed were unchanged.
b.
direction changed and speed was constant.
c.
speed increased and direction was unchanged.
d.
speed decreased.
 

 15. 

A rocket sled accelerates from 10 m/sec to 50 m/sec in 2 seconds. What is the acceleration of the sled?
a.
10 m/sec2
b.
25 m/sec2
c.
40 m/sec2
d.
20 m/sec2
 

 16. 

Match the position vs. time graph with the correct speed vs. time graph.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0170000.jpg
a.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0170001.jpg
c.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0170002.jpg
b.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0170003.jpg
d.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0170004.jpg
 

 17. 

Objects tend to resist changes in motion. This property is called:
a.
weight.
b.
momentum.
c.
potential energy.
d.
inertia.
 

 18. 

Newton's first law of motion is also known as:
a.
the law of universal gravitation.
b.
the law of force pairs.
c.
the law of unbalanced forces.
d.
the law of inertia.
 

 19. 

A cart is rolling down a ramp. If the angle of the ramp is increased to make the ramp steeper, the cart will:
a.
accelerate slower.
b.
accelerate at the same rate.
c.
accelerate faster.
d.
move at a constant velocity.
 

 20. 

A 200-kilogram rocket accelerates at 50 m/sec2. How large is the force required to cause an acceleration of this size?
a.
1/4 newton
b.
4 newtons
c.
1,000 newtons
d.
10,000 newtons
 

 21. 

A car is traveling down a straight stretch of highway at 90 kilometers per hour. The driver suddenly slams on the brakes and brings the car to a quick stop. As a result, the unbelted passengers will at first:
a.
continue to move forward in a straight line.
b.
come to a stop at the same time as the car.
c.
be pushed against the door on the passenger side.
d.
be pushed against the back of the seat.
 

 22. 

In the picture below, a girl is sitting motionless on a swing. What is the net force on the girl?
study_guide_files_f_files/i0230000.jpg
a.
0 newtons
b.
245 newtons upwards
c.
490 newtons upwards
d.
490 newtons downwards
 

 23. 

On the surface of Earth, the force of gravity acting on one kilogram is:
a.
22 pounds
b.
9.8 pounds
c.
2.2 newtons
d.
9.8 newtons
 

 24. 

As a box is sliding down a ramp, a 10 newton force of gravity is pulling the box down the ramp while a 2 newton force of friction acts to stop the box. What is the net force accelerating the box down the ramp?
a.
5 newtons
b.
8 newtons
c.
10 newtons
d.
12 newtons
 

 25. 

A cart is rolling down a special ramp where there is no friction at all. What will happen if the amount of mass on the cart is increased?
a.
The cart will accelerate less.
b.
The cart's acceleration will not be affected.
c.
The cart will accelerate more.
d.
The cart will move at a constant velocity.
 

 26. 

What is the approximate weight in newtons of a 7.0-kilogram bowling ball?
a.
7.0 newtons
b.
70 newtons
c.
700 newtons
d.
7000 newtons
 

 27. 

The force of friction acting on a cart on a ramp is exactly balanced by the force of gravity acting on the cart down the ramp. The cart:
a.
must be stationary.
b.
may be accelerating down the ramp.
c.
may be moving with constant speed down the ramp.
d.
must be moving with constant speed down the ramp.
 

 28. 

A book rests on a table. The force of gravity pulls down on the book with a force of 20 newtons. What prevents the book from accelerating downward at 9.8 m/sec2?
a.
The table presses back up on the book with an equal and opposite force of 20 newtons.
b.
The table presses back up on the book with a force greater than 20 newtons.
c.
The table and the book together are accelerating downwards at 9.8 m/sec2.
d.
The inertia of the book holds it up.
 

 29. 

A rocket can fly into space because:
a.
when it is launched, the hot exhaust gases hit the ground and push the rocket forward.
b.
the rocket pushes the exhaust gases backward, and there is an equal and opposite reaction pushing the rocket forward.
c.
when the gases are burning up, the mass of the rocket decreases, changing the amount of gravity on the rocket.
d.
the launch pad pushes the rocket forward like a slingshot.
 

 30. 

An astronaut with a mass of 100 kilograms is floating in outer space. If the astronaut throws a 2-kilogram wrench at a speed of 10 meters per second, his motion would best be described as:
a.
in the same direction as the wrench at a speed less than 10 m/sec.
b.
in the same direction as the wrench at a speed greater than 10 m/sec.
c.
in a direction opposite to the wrench at a speed less than 10 m/sec.
d.
in a direction opposite to the wrench at a speed greater than 10 m/sec.
 

 31. 

What is the momentum of a 0.15-kilogram baseball moving at 20 m/sec?
a.
1.5 kg·m/sec
b.
3 kg·m/sec
c.
15 kg·m/sec
d.
30 kg·m/sec
 

 32. 

A 0.15-kilogram baseball and a 7.25-kilogram bowling ball are both rolling along at 3 m/sec. Which object is easier to stop and why?
a.
The bowling ball because it has less inertia
b.
The baseball because it has more inertia
c.
The bowling ball because heavy objects are naturally prone to stop on their own
d.
The baseball because it has less inertia
 

 33. 

A boy and the skateboard on which he is standing have a combined mass of 60 kilograms. He throws a 1-kilogram rock forward at 20 m/sec. At what speed will the boy roll backward?
a.
0.33 m/sec
b.
3.0 m/sec
c.
30 m/sec
d.
1,200 m/sec
 

 34. 

Compare the inertia and momentum of a 0.15-kilogram baseball moving at 50 m/sec with the inertia and momentum of a 7.25-kilogram bowling ball moving at 1 m/sec.
a.
The baseball has more inertia, but the bowling ball has more momentum.
b.
The baseball has both more inertia and more momentum.
c.
The bowling ball has more inertia, but the baseball has more momentum.
d.
The bowling ball has both more inertia and more momentum.
 

 35. 

A simple machine often multiplies your:
a.
energy.
b.
work.
c.
force.
d.
power.
 

 36. 

Which of the following is NOT considered a simple machine?
a.
Wheel and axle
b.
Electric motor
c.
Lever
d.
Block and tackle
 

 37. 

On a 10-speed bicycle, gears increase the mechanical advantage of the bicycle. In which of the following situations would you want the greatest mechanical advantage for the gear system?
a.
Climbing up a hill
b.
Coasting down a hill
c.
Riding on level ground
d.
Stopping suddenly to avoid a crash
 

 38. 

A block and tackle machine is used to lift a box that weighs 90 newtons. How much force do you need to pull on the rope if the machine has a mechanical advantage of 5?
a.
5 newtons
b.
9 newtons
c.
18 newtons
d.
45 newtons
 

 39. 

A block and tackle system has an input force of 2.5 newtons and an output force of 10 newtons. What is the mechanical advantage of the system?
a.
0.25
b.
4
c.
7.5
d.
25
 

 40. 

Which of the following block and tackle systems has the largest mechanical advantage?
study_guide_files_f_files/i0410000.jpg
a.
System A has the largest mechanical advantage.
b.
System B has the largest mechanical advantage.
c.
System C has the largest mechanical advantage.
d.
All three systems have the same mechanical advantage.
 

 41. 

The human arm is an example of which class of lever?
study_guide_files_f_files/i0420000.jpg
a.
First class
b.
Second class
c.
Third class
d.
None of the above
 

 42. 

The gear ratio is equal to:
a.
output teeth divided by input teeth.
b.
output turns divided by input turns.
c.
input speed divided by output speed.
d.
input direction divided by output direction.
 

 43. 

Gears may be combined in a system to:
a.
change force.
b.
change speed.
c.
change direction.
d.
All of the above are true.
 

 44. 

Your friend claims to have invented a perpetual motion machine with an efficiency of 110 percent. You tell him his invention is impossible because it violates:
a.
Newton's first law of motion.
b.
Newton's second law of motion.
c.
Newton's third law of motion.
d.
the law of conservation of energy.
 

 45. 

In science, work is defined as:
a.
the mass of an object multiplied by its acceleration.
b.
the mass of an object multiplied by the force required to move it.
c.
force multiplied by the distance moved in a direction perpendicular to the force.
d.
force multiplied by the distance moved in a direction parallel to the force.
 

 46. 

Calculate the work needed to lift a block weighing 4 newtons a distance of 10 meters.
a.
0.4 joules
b.
2.5 joules
c.
4 joules
d.
40 joules
 

 47. 

The efficiency of a modern bicycle is 95 percent. If you exert 200 joules in pedaling a bicycle on level ground, what is the work output?
a.
95 joules
b.
105 joules
c.
190 joules
d.
295 joules
 

 48. 

A gallon of gasoline contains chemical energy. If you pour a gallon of gasoline into your car, you could drive for about 20 miles on the highway (about 20 minutes). You could choose instead to run a lawn mower for an hour with one gallon of gasoline. If the gasoline were to come in contact with a fire, the entire gallon would burn in less than a minute. Which reaction has the most power?
a.
Burning the gasoline in the car
b.
Burning the gasoline in a fire
c.
Burning the gasoline in the lawn mower
d.
They are equal because the gasoline has the same chemical potential energy in each case.
 

 49. 

When a ball is thrown into the air, the potential energy gained must come from its kinetic energy. As the ball gains potential energy, its speed will:
a.
increase.
b.
decrease.
c.
remain the same.
d.
Not enough information is given.
 

 50. 

A moving car has kinetic energy. To bring the car to rest, you must decrease its kinetic energy to zero. The brakes do this work by applying a force over a distance. What effect would doubling the speed have on the braking distance?
a.
The braking distance would be 4 times smaller.
b.
The braking distance would be 2 times smaller.
c.
The braking distance would be 2 times greater.
d.
The braking distance would be 4 times greater.
 

 51. 

A TV repairman has to make a delivery of an old and very heavy television. Instead of lifting it up 1.0 meter into his truck, the repairman makes a ramp out of a board 4.0 meters long. He puts the TV on a wheeled platform and pushes it up the board and into the back of his truck. What is the mechanical advantage of the ramp?
study_guide_files_f_files/i0520000.jpg
a.
0.25
b.
1
c.
2
d.
4
 

 52. 

Potential energy is energy due to the:
a.
motion of an object.
b.
height of an object.
c.
temperature of an object.
d.
speed of an object.
 

 53. 

A circuit with a switch turned to the OFF position or a circuit with any break is called:
a.
a closed circuit.
b.
a short circuit.
c.
a resistor circuit.
d.
an open circuit.
 

 54. 

A closed circuit:
a.
is off.
b.
is on.
c.
has a break in it.
d.
requires no voltage.
 

 55. 

Suppose you are trying to help someone gain a better understanding of electric circuits. If you compare an electrical circuit to a system that carries water, what would the water pipes represent?
a.
Battery
b.
Wires
c.
Electromagnet
d.
Switch
 

 56. 

Positive electric charges:
a.
attract both positive charges and negative charges.
b.
repel both positive charges and negative charges.
c.
attract positive charges and repel negative charges.
d.
repel positive charges and attract negative charges.
 

 57. 

Electric charge is:
a.
caused by two fluids, as described by Benjamin Franklin.
b.
present in metals only.
c.
a fundamental property of matter that comes in two forms.
d.
found only in non-living material.
 

 58. 

What property of matter gives rise to both electricity and magnetism?
a.
Mass
b.
Charge
c.
Magnetos
d.
Nuclei
 

 59. 

Four alkaline AA batteries are placed in series. What is the total voltage of the batteries?
a.
1.5 volts
b.
6 volts
c.
9 volts
d.
36 volts
 

 60. 

Which of the following safety devices measure or react to specific levels of current?
a.
Fuse
b.
Circuit breaker
c.
Ground fault circuit interrupter
d.
All of the above
 

 61. 

Direct current (DC) and alternating current (AC) differ in:
a.
the kind of charge flow.
b.
the amount of charge flow.
c.
the direction of charge flow.
d.
the amount of energy per unit of charge.
 

 62. 

In an electrical circuit, the term current refers to:
a.
resistance.
b.
potential difference.
c.
flowing charges.
d.
energy loss.
 

 63. 

Almost all of the electrons flowing through a battery circuit come from:
a.
atoms in the wire conductor.
b.
atoms in the circuit components.
c.
atoms involved in chemical reactions at the battery's negative terminal.
d.
atoms involved in chemical reactions at the battery's positive terminal.
 

 64. 

Electrical current will pass easily through:
a.
an absorber.
b.
a conductor.
c.
a semiconductor.
d.
an insulator.
 

 65. 

The ability of an object to resist current is called:
a.
potential difference.
b.
electrical inertia.
c.
alternating current.
d.
electrical resistance.
 

 66. 

An ohm is the unit of measurement for:
a.
electrical power.
b.
voltage.
c.
current.
d.
resistance.
 

 67. 

If you look inside a stereo or telephone you will find a circuit board, which has wires printed on it and is covered with little parts. Components called ____ are used to control current in the circuits on the board.
a.
resistors
b.
wires
c.
batteries
d.
amperes
 

 68. 

What does a power company sell to its customers?
a.
Power
b.
Voltage
c.
Current
d.
Energy
 

 69. 

If electricity costs 10 cents per kilowatt-hour, how much does it cost to run a 60-watt light bulb for one hour?
a.
$0.006
b.
$0.06
c.
$0.60
d.
$6.00
 

 70. 

If a microwave oven draws 11.0 amps of current when plugged into a 120.-volt outlet, what is its power rating?
a.
1.32 kilowatts
b.
1.09 kilowatts
c.
132 watts
d.
109 watts
 
 
study_guide_files_f_files/i0720000.jpg
Figure 3-1A
 

 71. 

Which of the circuit diagrams shown in Figure 3-1A is a series circuit?
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and II only
 

 72. 

Calculate the total resistance in the circuit below.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0740000.jpg
a.
1/3 ohm
b.
3 ohms
c.
9 ohms
d.
27 ohms
 

 73. 

The current in a DC series circuit:
a.
decreases to zero as it travels through the circuit.
b.
is the same at all points in a circuit.
c.
is greatest in the resistor with the highest resistance.
d.
is greatest in the resistor with the lowest resistance.
 

 74. 

Kirchoff's current law applies to a parallel circuit because it states that:
a.
current is the same everywhere throughout one entire circuit.
b.
current is the same everywhere throughout branching circuit paths.
c.
current stays the same as more branches are added to a parallel circuit.
d.
all the current flowing into a branch point must flow out again.
 

 75. 

Earth's magnetic north pole is:
a.
aligned with the north star.
b.
aligned with the Earth's geographic north pole.
c.
under Antarctica, the Earth's geographic south pole.
d.
at the equator.
 

 76. 

All atoms act like tiny magnets. Why do only a few materials show magnetic properties?
a.
Magnetic materials have atoms that are much stronger magnets than the atoms of other materials.
b.
Atomic magnets are magnified when combined with a rare substance. Magnetic materials contain this rare substance.
c.
We see magnetic properties only if atomic magnets line up with Earth's geographic south and north poles. In magnetic materials this arrangement can occur.
d.
We see magnetic properties only if atomic magnets line up in the same direction throughout a material. In magnetic materials this arrangement can occur.
 

 77. 

A student places two magnets with their north poles facing each other, about 70.0 centimeters apart. When she moves one magnet toward the other, the first magnet repels the second at a distance of 26 centimeters. She repeats the procedure, but now places the magnets so the south pole of one faces the north pole of the other. What is she likely to observe?
study_guide_files_f_files/i0790000.jpg
a.
The first magnet will again repel the second at a distance of 26 centimeters.
b.
The first magnet will attract the second at a distance of 26 centimeters.
c.
The first magnet will repel the second at a distance of 52 centimeters.
d.
The first magnet will attract the second at a distance of 52 centimeters.
 

 78. 

If you reverse the direction of current flow in an electromagnet, what happens?
a.
The north and south poles are reversed.
b.
The magnet is neutralized.
c.
The strength of the magnetic field increases.
d.
A short circuit occurs.
 

 79. 

When current flows through a coil of wire, you have:
a.
a superconductor.
b.
an electromagnet.
c.
a ceramic magnet.
d.
a semiconductor.
 

 80. 

Which of the following does not create a magnetic field?
a.
A lodestone
b.
A straight wire carrying current
c.
A coil of wire carrying current
d.
A metal ball with 2 coulombs of static charge on it
 

 81. 

If the length of a pendulum increases, the period of the pendulum:
a.
increases.
b.
decreases.
c.
stays the same.
d.
returns immediately to zero.
 

 82. 

Which factor listed below has the greatest effect on the period of a pendulum?
a.
Mass of the pendulum
b.
Length of the string
c.
Amplitude of the oscillations
d.
Angle of the pendulum
 

 83. 

A mass oscillates on the end of a spring with a period of 4.0 seconds. What is the frequency of the oscillator?
a.
0.25 hertz
b.
0.50 hertz
c.
2.0 hertz
d.
5.0 hertz
 
 
study_guide_files_f_files/i0860000.jpg

Figure 4.1
 

 84. 

Which of the graphs in figure 4.1 has a period of two seconds?
a.
Graph A
b.
Graph B
c.
Graph C
d.
Graphs B and C
 

 85. 

The diagram illustrating two waves in phase is:
a.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0880000.jpg
c.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0880001.jpg
b.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0880002.jpg
d.
study_guide_files_f_files/i0880003.jpg
 

 86. 

Sound waves are always:
a.
transverse waves.
b.
longitudinal waves.
c.
electromagnetic waves.
d.
seismic waves.
 

 87. 

A longitudinal wave travels:
a.
only along the Earth's longitudinal lines.
b.
perpendicular to the direction of oscillations.
c.
in the same direction as the oscillations.
d.
perpendicular to a latitude wave.
 

 88. 

An ocean wave has a frequency of 2 Hz and a speed of 20 m/sec. What is the wavelength of this wave?
a.
0.1 meter
b.
10 meters
c.
20 meters
d.
40 meters
 

 89. 

Which of the following usually occurs inside a material instead of at the surface?
a.
Reflection
b.
Refraction
c.
Diffraction
d.
Absorption
 

 90. 

Destructive interference occurs because:
a.
multiple waves combine to make a wave of smaller amplitude.
b.
waves bend around or through holes in an obstacle.
c.
waves are absorbed and disappear.
d.
two waves add up to make a wave of larger amplitude.
 

 91. 

A vibrating string has a natural frequency of 30 hertz. The string will also be resonant at:
a.
18.5 hertz.
b.
22.0 hertz.
c.
47.0 hertz.
d.
60.0 hertz.
 

 92. 

A violin string vibrates at a fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. The frequency of the third harmonic for this string is:
a.
300 hertz.
b.
400 hertz.
c.
500 hertz.
d.
600 hertz.
 

 93. 

How many anti-nodes does this standing wave have?
study_guide_files_f_files/i0960000.jpg
a.
One
b.
Two
c.
Three
d.
Four
 

 94. 

The picture below shows five harmonics of a vibrating string experiment. The vibrating string incorrectly labeled is:
study_guide_files_f_files/i0970000.jpg
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
 

 95. 

When a guitar string is "plucked," it vibrates at its fundamental. If a guitar string is 68 cm long, what is the speed of the wave on the string if the fundamental frequency of the guitar string is 262 hertz?
a.
68 m/sec
b.
178 m/sec
c.
356 m/sec
d.
35,632 m/sec
 

 96. 

Ultrasound is:
a.
the speed at which the latest, top-secret jet aircraft fly.
b.
used to make internal images of the human body.
c.
extremely painful to the human ear.
d.
of lower frequency than the human ear can detect.
 

 97. 

"Dead spots" sometimes occur in a concert hall because:
a.
the designer of the building meant for no one to sit there.
b.
the frequency of sound waves in that spot is too high for humans to hear.
c.
destructive interference causes some of the sound to cancel out with its own reflections.
d.
beat frequencies cause damping of the oscillations.
 

 98. 

Polly is standing on the bottom of a wide canyon, leaning against its wall. She shouts "hello" toward the opposite side of the canyon. If the speed of sound is 340 m/sec and Polly hears her own echo 4 seconds later, how wide is the canyon?
a.
85 meters
b.
340 meters
c.
680 meters
d.
1,360 meters
 

 99. 

The musical scale consists of a set of frequencies divided into "octaves" represented by letters A to G. In the middle of the scale, middle C has a frequency of 264 hertz. The frequency of the "C" above middle C is:
a.
132 hertz.
b.
264 hertz.
c.
272 hertz.
d.
528 hertz.
 

 100. 

Phosphorus atoms embedded in plastic absorb light energy and slowly release the light in a glow-in-the-dark process called:
a.
incandescence.
b.
photosynthesis.
c.
photoluminescence.
d.
polarization.
 

 101. 

To create pictures, a liquid crystal diode (LCD) uses:
a.
polarized light.
b.
reflected light.
c.
ultraviolet light.
d.
lasers.
 

 102. 

Electromagnetic energy invisible to the human eye is:
a.
red light.
b.
yellow light.
c.
blue light.
d.
ultraviolet light.
 

 103. 

The type of wave that can be used to transmit your voice on a cell phone and to cook your food in an oven is the:
a.
microwave.
b.
X ray.
c.
gamma ray.
d.
ultraviolet wave.
 

 104. 

An atom emits light when one of its electrons:
a.
moves from a low energy level to a high energy level.
b.
remains at a high energy level.
c.
moves from a high energy level to a low energy level.
d.
remains at a low energy level.
 

 105. 

An atom absorbs energy as its electrons:
a.
move from a low energy level to a high energy level.
b.
stay in a high energy level.
c.
move from a high energy level to a low energy level.
d.
stay in a low energy level.
 

 106. 

Which of the following is a true statement about light?
a.
Light travels at the same speed no matter what kind of material it is moving through.
b.
The direction of a ray of light can never be changed.
c.
Nothing in the universe travels faster than light.
d.
All colors of light have the same wavelengths but different frequencies.
 

 107. 

Sunscreen protects your skin from sunburn. For sunscreen to be effective, it must block or absorb:
a.
visible light.
b.
ultraviolet light.
c.
infrared light.
d.
X rays.
 

 108. 

The primary colors used to construct an image on a color TV monitor are:
a.
red, blue, and yellow.
b.
red, green, and blue.
c.
white and black.
d.
magenta, cyan, and yellow.
 

 109. 

Light can have different colors because it can have different:
a.
frequencies.
b.
wavelengths.
c.
energies.
d.
All of the above are true.
 
 
The pictures below represent the strength of signals reaching the brain from the color receptors in the eye. Filled boxes indicate a strong signal. Empty boxes represent no signal. Use the pictures to answer the following questions.
study_guide_files_f_files/i1130000.jpg
 

 110. 

Which picture represents someone seeing the color we think of as RED?
a.
Picture A
b.
Picture B
c.
Picture C
d.
Picture D
 

 111. 

Which picture represents someone seeing the color we think of as YELLOW?
a.
Picture A
b.
Picture B
c.
Picture C
d.
Picture D
 

 112. 

We see a tree because of light:
a.
emitted by the tree.
b.
reflected by the tree.
c.
refracted by the tree.
d.
absorbed by the tree.
 

 113. 

Filters are transparent materials that may absorb some colors and transmit others as light passes through them. If white light shines through a red filter, the filter absorbs:
a.
all the colors in white light.
b.
no colors of white light.
c.
only the red light.
d.
all the colors except red.
 

 114. 

The bending of light rays that results as light crosses a boundary from one substance to another is called:
a.
reflection.
b.
diffraction.
c.
absorption.
d.
refraction.
 
 
study_guide_files_f_files/i1190000.jpg

Figure 5-1a
 

 115. 

In Figure 5-1a, the dotted line perpendicular to the surface is called the:
a.
focal point.
b.
reflection.
c.
incident ray.
d.
normal.
 

 116. 

In Figure 5-1a, the angle of incidence is identified as:
a.
angle A.
b.
angle B.
c.
angle C.
d.
angle D.
 

 117. 

What is the light ray in Figure 5-1a experiencing?
a.
Reflection
b.
Refraction
c.
Reaction
d.
Subtraction
 

 118. 

A ray of light falls on a mirror. Which ray best describes the path of the light reflected from the mirror?
study_guide_files_f_files/i1230000.jpg
a.
Ray a
b.
Ray b
c.
Ray c
d.
Ray d
 

 119. 

The image you see below is called:
study_guide_files_f_files/i1240000.jpg
a.
an index of refraction.
b.
total internal reflection.
c.
an optical illusion.
d.
an incidence of reflection.
 

 120. 

The human eye is able to focus on objects that are near and objects that are far away because:
a.
the lens changes shape.
b.
the cone cells are sensitive to color.
c.
the eyeball changes shape.
d.
the iris changes the amount of light let into the eye.
 

 121. 

A laser is a device that emits:
a.
microwaves.
b.
a single frequency of light.
c.
focused sound waves.
d.
beams of electric current.
 

 122. 

A substance made of two or more elements that cannot be separated by physical means is called a:
a.
compound.
b.
homogeneous mixture.
c.
heterogeneous mixture.
d.
multi-element.
 

 123. 

Which of the following is true of a heterogeneous mixture?
a.
It is not possible to separate the various parts of the mixture.
b.
Taking one sample will enable you to determine what it is made of.
c.
Different samples may not be exactly alike.
d.
The density is the same throughout the entire mixture.
 

 124. 

A compound:
a.
is made of more than one kind of element.
b.
cannot be separated by physical means.
c.
is classified as a substance.
d.
All of the above are true.
 

 125. 

Which of the following tools could NOT be used to find volume?
a.
Balance
b.
Metric ruler
c.
Graduated cylinder
d.
Beaker
 

 126. 

Which of these states of matter is most commonly found in the universe?
a.
Plasma.
b.
Solid.
c.
Liquid.
d.
Gas.
 

 127. 

Evaporation occurs when:
a.
a solid changes to a gas.
b.
a gas changes to a liquid.
c.
a liquid changes to a solid.
d.
a liquid changes to a gas.
 

 128. 

List the phases of water in order, from the phase with the slowest molecular movement to the phase with the fastest molecular movement.
a.
Gas-Liquid-Solid
b.
Liquid-Solid-Gas
c.
Solid-Liquid-Gas
d.
Gas-Solid-Liquid
 

 129. 

Which ONE of the following is a true statement?
a.
In the gas state, molecules move around freely.
b.
Liquids do not change shape easily.
c.
Gas molecules move more slowly as they are heated.
d.
Plasma is the most common state of matter found on Earth.
 

 130. 

The freezing and boiling points of a substance change as the air pressure around it changes. For example, at a lower air pressure, it is easier for water molecules to escape from liquid into the air.Therefore, in a high altitude city such as Denver, Colorado (compared to a sea-level city such as Boston, Massachusetts), WATER:
a.
boils at a higher temperature.
b.
boils at a lower temperature.
c.
boils at the same temperature.
d.
will not boil.
 

 131. 

Density is the ratio:
a.
mass/weight
b.
mass/volume
c.
volume/area
d.
mass/area
 

 132. 

At 20.00° C, the density of copper is 8.900 g/cm3. If a section of copper pipe displaces 285.0 milliliters of water when dropped in a displacement tank, what is the mass of the pipe?
a.
0.0310 g
b.
32.00 g
c.
320.0 g
d.
2537 g
 

 133. 

Ice cubes float in a glass of water because:
a.
the ice is losing mass through the melting process.
b.
the colder ice is more dense.
c.
liquid water is less dense than ice cubes.
d.
the molecules of ice are arranged in an orderly way so that there is an unusually large amount of empty space in the ice cubes.
 

 134. 

To halt its descent, a diving submarine might:
a.
expel water on board and replace it with air.
b.
allow water to flood into air-filled tubes in the submarine.
c.
increase its velocity.
d.
None of the above would work.
 
 
Liquid
Weight of 1 milliliter of liquid
Olive oil
0.0090 N
Glycerin
0.0123 N
Table 6-1A
Your teacher has given you an opaque plastic bottle that can hold 20.0 milliliters. You are told that the empty bottle was formed from 3.50 mL of plastic and its cap from 1.50 mL of plastic.The bottle has been filled with a mystery substance and sealed.
 

 135. 

Your teacher instructs you to place your bottle into a displacement tank filled with olive oil. If the bottle floats, you should gently push down until the top of the bottle is even with the surface of the liquid. Approximately how many mL of liquid will be displaced by the bottle if you follow your teacher’s instructions? (You may need to use Table 6-1A and/or the information below the table to answer this question.)
a.
0.0123 mL
b.
15.0 mL
c.
25.0 mL
d.
It depends on what is inside the bottle.
 

 136. 

When you place the sealed plastic bottle in the tank of olive oil, what is the value for the buoyant force acting on the bottle? (You may need to use Table 6-1A and/or the information below the table to answer this question.)
a.
0.147 N
b.
0.198 N
c.
0.225 N
d.
Unable to determine from the information given.
 

 137. 

Your teacher asks you to place the bottle into a displacement tank filled with glycerin. If the bottle floats, you should gently push down until the top of the bottle is even with the surface of the liquid. The volume of glycerin displaced by the bottle is:
(You may need to use Table 6-1A and/or the information below the table to answer this question.)
a.
greater than the volume of olive oil displaced by the same procedure.
b.
less than the volume of olive oil displaced by the same procedure.
c.
the same as the volume of olive oil displaced by the same procedure.
d.
dependent on the weight of the glycerin.
 

 138. 

This scientist published a detailed atomic theory in 1808 based on evidence he gathered through experiments with gases. His atomic theory laid the groundwork for later atomic models.
a.
Democritus
b.
John Dalton
c.
Ernest Rutherford
d.
Neils Bohr
 

 139. 

This scientist led a series of experiments that used high-speed lightweight atoms called alpha particles to bombard very thin pieces of gold foil. Some of the alpha particles went straight through the foil, but a few alpha particles bounced back. The scientist used this information to hypothesize that an atom must be made of a tiny dense nucleus surrounded by a region of mostly empty space.
a.
Democritus
b.
John Dalton
c.
Ernest Rutherford
d.
Neils Bohr
 

 140. 

British physicist Joseph John Thomson was the first to identify the:
a.
atomic theory.
b.
proton.
c.
neutron.
d.
electron.
 

 141. 

The "building blocks" of matter are:
a.
electrons.
b.
atoms and molecules.
c.
found only in the plasma state.
d.
as of yet undiscovered.
 

 142. 

The ____ is one kind of particle that makes up the atom and carries a positive charge. The neutron makes up for “missing mass” and is found in the nucleus. The third kind of particle carries a ____ charge and has almost no mass.
a.
electron, negative
b.
proton, negative
c.
proton, neutral
d.
proton, positive
 

 143. 

The noble gases, such as helium and xenon, are non-reactive because:
a.
they have completely filled outer electron shells.
b.
they are chemically unstable.
c.
they are unusually large atoms.
d.
they have been around longest on the earth.
 

 144. 

Chlorine, element number 17, is located in the third row and the next-to-the-last group of the periodic table. How many electron shells would be completely filled by a neutral atom of chlorine? How many electrons would be left over?
a.
1 shell filled, 7 electrons left over
b.
1 shell filled, 1 electron left over
c.
2 shells filled, 7 electrons left over
d.
2 shells filled, 1 electron left over
 

 145. 

How many energy levels are filled in a krypton atom?
study_guide_files_f_files/i1510000.jpg
a.
Three.
b.
Four.
c.
Five.
d.
Six.
 

 146. 

An atom contains ____ in various energy levels.
a.
neutrons
b.
protons
c.
electrons
d.
ions
 

 147. 

Which statement best explains why atoms form chemical bonds with other atoms?
a.
Most atoms are less stable when they combine with other atoms.
b.
When atoms collide with other atoms, they bond automatically.
c.
Atoms are always attracted to other atoms.
d.
Most atoms are unstable unless they are combined with other atoms.
 

 148. 

Sodium forms an ionic bond with chlorine when sodium ____ an electron and chlorine ____ an electron.
a.
shares, shares
b.
loses, gains
c.
gains, loses
d.
loses, loses
 
 
Use the diagram of the periodic table below to answer the following questions.
The Periodic Table of the Elements
 
1
                               
18
1
1
H
Hydrogen
1.0
2
                   
13
14
15
16
17
2
He
Helium
4.0
2

3
Li
Lithium
6.9
4
Be
Beryllium
9.0
                   
5
B
Boron
10.8
6
C
Carbon
12.0
7
N
Nitrogen
14.0
8
O
Oxygen
16.0
9
F
Fluorine
19.0
10
Ne
Neon
20.2
3

11
Na
Sodium
23.0
12
Mg
Magnesium
24.3
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
Al
Aluminum
27.0
14
Si
Silicon
28.1
15
P
Phosphorus
31.0
16
S
Sulfur
32.1
17
Cl
Chlorine
35.5
18
Ar
Argon
39.9
4

19
K
Potassium
39.1
20
Ca
Calcium
40.1
21
Sc
Scandium
45.0
22
Ti
Titanium
47.9
23
V
Vanadium
50.9
24
Cr
Chromium
52.0
25
Mn
Manganese
54.9
26
Fe
Iron
55.8
27
Co
Cobalt
58.9
28
Ni
Nickel
58.7
29
Cu
Copper
63.5
30
Zn
Zinc
65.4
31
Ga
Gallium
69.7
32
Ge
Germanium
72.6
33
As
Arsenic
74.9
34
Se
Selenium
79.0
35
Br
Bromine
79.9
36
Kr
Krypton
83.8
5

37
Rb
Rubidium
85.5
38
Sr
Strontium
87.6
39
Y
Yttrium
88.9
40
Zr
Zirconium
91.2
41
Nb
Niobium
92.9
42
Mo
Molybdenum
95.9
43
Tc
Technetium
(97.9)
44
Ru
Ruthenium
101.1
45
Rh
Rhodium
102.9
46
Pd
Palladium
106.4
47
Ag
Silver
107.9
48
Cd
Cadmium
112.4
49
In
Indium
114.8
50
Sn
Tin
118.7
51
Sb
Antimony
121.8
52
Te
Tellurium
127.6
53
I
Iodine
126.9
54
Xe
Xenon
131.3
6

55
Cs
Cesium
132.9
56
Ba
Barium
137.3
57
La
Lanthanum
138.9
72
Hf
Hafnium
178.5
73
Ta
Tantalum
180.9
74
W
Tungsten
183.8
75
Re
Rhenium
186.2
76
Os
Osmium
190.2
77
Ir
Iridium
192.2
78
Pt
Platinum
195.1
79
Au
Gold
197.0
80
Hg
Mercury
200.6
81
Tl
Thallium
204.4
82
Pb
Lead
207.2
83
Bi
Bismuth
209.0
84
Po
Polonium
(209.0)
85
At
Astatine
(210.0)
86
Rn
Radon
(222.0)
7

87
Fr
Francium
(223.0)
88
Ra
Radium
(226.0)
89
Ac
Actinium
(227.0)
104
Rf
Rutherfordium
(261.1)
105
Db
Dubnium
(262.1)
106
Sg
Seaborgium
(263.1)
107
Bh
Bohrium
(262.1)
108
Hs
Hassium
(265)
109
Mt
Meitnerium
(266)
110
Uun
Ununnilium
(271)
111
Uuu
Unununium
(272)
112
Uub
Ununbium
(277)
 
114
Uuq
Ununquadium
(285)
 
116
Uuh
Ununhexium
(289)
 
118
Uuo
Ununoctium
(293)
     
study_guide_files_f_files/i1550000.jpg
                           
     
58
Ce
Cerium
140.1
59
Pr
Praseodymium
140.9
60
Nd
Neodymium
144.2
61
Pm
Promethium
(144.9)
62
Sm
Samarium
150.4
63
Eu
Europium
152.0
64
Gd
Gadolinium
157.3
65
Tb
Terbium
158.9
66
Dy
Dysprosium
162.5
67
Ho
Holmium
164.9
68
Er
Erbium
167.3
69
Tm
Thulium
168.9
70
Yb
Ytterbium
173.0
71
Lu
Lutetium
175.0
     

90
Th
Thorium
232.0
91
Pa
Protactinium
231.0
92
U
Uranium
238.0
93
Np
Neptunium
(237.0)
94
Pu
Plutonium
244.1
95
Am
Americium
(243.1)
96
Cm
Curium
(247.1)
97
Bk
Berkelium
(247.1)
98
Cf
Californium
(251.1)
99
Es
Einsteinium
(252.1)
100
Fm
Fermium
(257.1)
101
Md
Mendelevium
(258.1)
102
No
Nobelium
(259.1)
103
Lr
Lawrencium
(262.1)
 

 149. 

Which statement is NOT TRUE about elements in group 16?
a.
They need two electrons to complete their octet.
b.
They have an oxidation number of 2-.
c.
They have an oxidation number of 2+.
d.
They have six valence electrons.
 

 150. 

When an atom gains or loses electrons, it has an electrical charge. It is known as:
a.
an ion.
b.
a free radical.
c.
a hydrate.
d.
a monoatomic molecule.
 

 151. 

What is the chemical formula for a compound that contains the aluminum ion (Al3+) and the hydroxide ion (OH-)?
a.
Al(OH)3
b.
AlO3H3
c.
AlOH3
d.
None of the above
 

 152. 

The compound CaCl2 contains which of the following ions?
a.
Ca+ and Cl-
b.
Ca2+ and Cl-
c.
Ca4+ and Cl2-
d.
Ca2+ and Cl4-
 

 153. 

In the periodic table notation below, what information does the number 40.08 tell you?
study_guide_files_f_files/i1600000.jpg
a.
It is the number of protons.
b.
It is the number of neutrons.
c.
It is the atomic number.
d.
It is the atomic mass.
 

 154. 

A chemical formula for a compound tells a lot of information about that compound. Which of the following is NOT true of a chemical formula?
a.
The chemical symbols for each element in the compound are given.
b.
The chemical formula lets you know if polyatomic ions are present in the compound.
c.
The element with the negative oxidation number is usually listed first.
d.
The chemical formula allows you to calculate the formula mass of a compound.
 

 155. 

The molecular formula for aspirin is: C9H8O4. What is its empirical formula?
a.
C9H8O4
b.
C3H2O2
c.
CHO
d.
None of the above.
 

 156. 

When you eat an apple, the process of digestion involves:
a.
physical change only.
b.
chemical change only.
c.
physical and chemical change.
d.
phase change.
 

 157. 

When a chemical change occurs:
a.
atoms are rearranged.
b.
the law of conservation of mass is always obe